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Originally Posted by Yekcidmij
Ah, I think it's a common misconception that it's refering to earthly, human judges. That is what the Jews thought (cf: m. avot and Targum Isaiah), but that's definitely not what the passage is talking about. The passage talks about divine elohim in an assembly.
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Psalm 82 says: "How long will you judge unjustly, and show partiality to the wicked? Selah
3 Defend the poor and fatherless;
Do justice to the afflicted and needy.
4 Deliver the poor and needy;
Free them from the hand of the wicked."
If God is not speaking to earthly judges, then to whom is He speaking? Angels? Why on earth would Angels be concerned with the poor and orphans? More so than a human judge?
7 But you shall die like men,
And fall like one of the princes.”
8 Arise, O God,
judge the earth;
For You shall inherit all nations.
If these unjust "gods" are not human judges, then why does it say in verse 8 "Arise, O God,
judge the earth;" Why judge the earth for something done in heaven?
I asked a friend of mine who speaks Hebrew (his first language) and the phrase in verse 7 is better translated "you shall die just like other men, . . ." IOW, these unjust judges, these mortal men will die like any other mortal man.
Are you familiar with
James E. Talmage? In his book, Jesus the Christ, he says the same thing.
Quote:
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8. Divinely Appointed Judges Called "gods."—In Psalm 82:6, judges invested by divine appointment are called "gods." To this scripture the Savior referred in His reply to the Jews in Solomon's Porch. Judges so authorized officiated as the representatives of God and are honored by the exalted title "gods." Compare the similar appellation applied to Moses (Exo. 4:16; 7:1). Jesus Christ possessed divine authorization, not through the word of God transmitted to Him by man, but as an inherent attribute. The inconsistency of calling human judges "gods," and of ascribing blasphemy to the Christ who called Himself the Son of God, would have been apparent to the Jews but for their sin-darkened minds.
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