[AnthonyB]

Erik,

So which baptism is Eph 4:5 talking of when it says there is "one" baptism?
There is no textual problems in the text. (Well a very small issue at the end of verse 6)

"One body and one spirit, just as also you were called in one faith when you were called.
One lord, one faith, one baptism, one God and father to all, who [is] near all and through all and in all."

I can't think you'd want to affirm there is two of any of the others, so why decide on two baptisms?

Clearly the writers of Nicea saw one baptism which did both of what your two baptisms do.

I could you give a page of quotes from Tertullian, Justin Martyr, Augustine, Aquinas and Luther on the topic but I'll quote Zwingli himself....."In this matter of baptism all the doctors have been in error from the time of the apsotles."

So on what basis do you decide on two baptisms? You have IMHO scripture, creed and the full weight of church tradition for 1500 years against you.

If your asking what this has got to do with your original post, in part it is where I think the reformation got it wrong.