[Traveler]

Originally Posted by prisonchaplain

It's pretty clear that the references to "secret" (Gnosticism = secret knowledge, btw) teachings, and missing teachings relates to the LDS belief that the Bible is missing important truths. IMHO, the Bible contains what it is supposed to. The continuing revelations that we receive from prophets does not contradict biblical truth, nor do they fill in large gaps. Rather, they tend to explicate already revealed truths with particulars for a congregation and time period.

Pursuing extrabiblical teachings etc. can be dangerous.

Interesting post. The Bible most certainly contains what someone wants it to contain. The question is – if that someone is G-d or if man has had any input at all. My concern is that if it is G-d only – why did he not say so somewhere in the Bible. Since the Bible is the direct result of human editing we know that it was man (through their collective opinions) that determined what to include and what to exclude. And so with your method (see if the idea of men deciding on their own to determine what is scripture - contradicts the Bible) we must look to the Bible to see if that was ever the means (and how often it was the means) to determine such things – the problem I have is that I find no such method anywhere in the Bible. I find no method anywhere in scripture to determine what is scripture, especially a group of men deciding such a thing without an angel or some one or something directing (like in the Book of Revelation).

Maybe one of the things Jesus taught during those 40 days was what to include in the Bible and what is scripture. We do know he thought things about the kingdom of G-d and what is scripture the Kingdom of G-d would use would fit into that category. I am sure that Jesus realized all of the doctrine issues that would divide believers into various sects and may have taught something to prevent divisions within the Kingdom of G-d. That fits the description in Acts.

So my question is – If Jesus wanted someone 2000 years ago to know something – why was it not written down. But we do not know if it was or was not written down. So why is it not in the Bible? Your answer is – because it was not meant for us to have? Or if there is some way that we do have it in other scripture – that we were not meant to know we have it?

My question is concerning that – what teachings from the Bible does that agree with?

The Traveler